|
|||||||
|
|
|
|||||
|
|
|||||||
|
|
The New World Mis-TranslationThere is a major misinterpretation and mistranslation problem with the Jehovah's Witnesses New World Translation, it is a anti-Trinitarian biased paraphrased bible called New World Translation. This is why it is important to find a good translation of the bible and learn how to study the original languages, texts, contexts, and historical surroundings. The above scriptural discussions make it clear that according to proper translation and interpretation of scripture there are major flaws, deceits and manipulations in the JW church when it comes to the doctrine of the tri-unity. Continued scriptural study JWs' believe that Jesus is The Mighty God and Jehovah is The Almighty God. When in Isa 10:22 it calls Yahweh or Jehovah is the Mighty God also if you look at Zech 12:10 in the original Hebrew along with Rev 1:7-8 It calls Jesus The Almighty the one the have pierced whom every eye shall see return. The Old Testament refers to Yahweh as The GOD of God, KING of kings, and LORD of Lords. (Dan 2:47; Duet 10:17). Then NEW Testament calls Jesus the KING of Kings and LORD of Lords. (Matt 27:37; John 19:14; 1 Tim 6:15; Rev 19:16). Yahweh is called the alpha and Omega (Isa 41:4) and so is Jesus referred to as the Alpha and Omega. (Rev 1:8; 22:13). JWs' deny the deity and divinity of Jesus and demote him to being the created creator Michael the glorified archangel because of one scripture that says he shall descend with the shout os an archangel, 1 Thes 4:16. As Jesus descends there is going to be a trumpet blast and an archangel shouting. Jesus can not be Michael the archangel because Jesus watched Lucifer get thrown out of heaven when Michael the Archangel threw satan Lucifer out. (Luke 10:18; John 12:31). You can not watch yourself do something while you are doing it. In the light of scripture none of the doctrines make any sense if Jesus is eternal, without beginning or end. (Heb 13:8/Isa 9:6; John 17:5; 1:1-3; Isa 41:4; Rev 1:8; 22:13). Revelation 1:7-8,17 along with Zechariah 12:10 refer to Jesus as The Almighty God, and Isaiah 10:22 refers to Jehovah as The Mighty God. This shows the equality in the deity of The Father and The Son. Jesus said "I and the father are one,...They picked up stones to stone him...'Because he a mere man claimed to be God,'...He abides in me and I in him." This pretty clearly states that Jesus claimed to be God and the Pharisee's wanted to kill Him because of it. John 10:30,33,38. "If you have seen me you have seen the father" John 14:6-9. Jesus is clearly calling Himself God. What but none can see the father and live? Jacob wrestles with theophanies and says he saw God's face. (Gen 32:30). "Jesus is truly God manifest in the flesh, He is the image, the likeness of his glory, true God from true God, begotten (meaning chosen) not made." Let god be true and every man a liar. Jesus the Creator How can Jesus be Eternal and JWs say He is the created creator. (Isa 9:6; John 1:1-3,18; 10:30-34,38; 14:6-9; 17:5; Heb 13:8). When the word of God says Yahweh alone created and sustains the universe but the New Testament Tells us Jesus created and sustains the universe, Heb 1:3; John 1:1-3; Col 1:13-20. According to Gen 1 GOD Elohim Created everything moreover John 1:1-18, Colossians 1:13-21; and Hebrews 1:3 maintain Jesus created it all. SO did God lie and say He created everything and yet only created Jesus who created everything? No the word of God is true and every man a liar Jesus is God and God did truly create everything and stills sustains it all. Jesus being the eternal means that from eternity to eternity He is was and that He has not and will not change. That Jesus is the Eternal, the same yesterday today and forever, unchanging the eternal Son, Isaiah 9:6; Hebrews 13:8; John 17:5. Jesus could not be created. He just is eternal father. How can Jesus be a created archangel if He is eternal? That makes no sense. It makes no sense that one scripture says that Jesus will shout with the voice of an archangel and JWs use this scripture alone to say Jesus is a archangel. As a kid I could impersonate allot of voice If I talked like E.T. It didn't make me E.T. This seems childish to me. Then going they say since satan is a figurative god Jesus is a figurative god also which makes no cense. satan is callef the prince and god of this age, Jesus is called Mighty God, God, Lord, and God that is pretty literal. (Isa 9:6; John 1:1,18; 10:18; Rom 9:5; 1 Cor 12:4-6; Eph 4:4-6; Tit 2:13; Heb 1:8,10; 2 John 1:9; Jude 1:4). Jehovah's Witnesses say that Jesus is mighty God, that Jehovah's is almighty God, that satan is a figurative god so that, and Jesus is a god so that makes Jesus a figurative God. What kind of addition is that 30 + 60 - 0 + 15 = 0. What that makes no sense. Let us look at that argument a little closer. I gave Yahweh the numeric value of 60 because He is Almighty God in the JW opinion. I gave Jesus the mighty God the numerical value of 30 because the demote Him to Mighty God so I gave him half the value of Yahweh at a 30. I gave satan 0 since he is nothing anyways just figurative god of the system of things in both of our books. Then I gave Their version of Jesus a god a 15 because they limited Him to "a god" making lesser than mighty God now He is no longer mighty God but "a god." Do you see how the use scripture out of context to manipulate you to the point of acceptance of their doctrine pretty effective if you have no clue what's up. I am just using simple math to make a simple point which you shall see in a moment. Let us add these together almighty God = + 60, mighty God = + 30, satan = - 0, Jesus = + 15. I added all of them except satan who is a 0 anyway because he is negative and Jesus and God are positive. SO let us add this up 30 + 60 - 0 + 15 = 105 but somehow JWs get 0. If Jesus is The Mighty God That is pretty literal, If Jesus is a god that is pretty literal. according to the math in a logical line of reasoning Jesus is 105 that makes Him 150% God, if you do the math. He is a God. Whether or not JWs acknowledge His Deity and Divinity Jesus is God, Because the weight of scripture calls Jesus God He is God let us look. Some reason or another because satan is a figurative god of this system of things JWs figure that Jesus is a figurative god (2 Cor 4:4). satan is not Jesus and Jesus is not satan those two scriptures do not relate. Talk about faulty thinking. Scary misrepresentation of Gods word to support their anti-Trinitarian bias. Allegorical teaching one of the biggest biblical heresies in the church at large. JWs say that everything that contradicts there doctrine is allegorical. Every time I have ran into a JW and I have showed them a scripture says something apposing their doctrine they reply saying "Thats figurative." Contrary to a recent book they wrote call "All scripture are inspired of God beneficial for teaching, reproving and setting things straight." They left out the part "That the man of God may be fully equipped." The word of God is all we need. It doesn't make sense if they say all scripture are inspired why can't they and why don't they take it literal. Eternal Glory in heaven for all who call upon the name of the Lord! JWs also believe only the 144,000 thousand could go to heaven because (even though Matt 25:46; John 3:16; John 1:12; 3-16; 20:31; Acts 3:28-29; Rom 10:9-17; Rev 5:9-14; 19:1; say that heaven is for any and everyone who wants to go to heaven and that the great crowd will be in heaven praising Jesus Rev 19:1; 7:8; 5:9-14). From dust to dust is you body but your soul shall live on in heaven or hell. (Num 16:30,33,35; Psalms 55:15; 25:46; Mark 9:38-48, Luke 16:19-31; 13:1-5; Rev 7:9; 19:1,20. 21:8; 21:19; Acts 17:30; 2:4,17,38,39; 3:19; 4:12,30-33; Gal 2:18; 3:24; 1 John 3:6-10,15,16; Rom 3:10; 23; 5:6,8; 6:23; 3:19,27-28,31; Gal 2:26; Eph 2:8-10; Heb 1:6,8,10; 13:8; James 2:14-26) Why did Jesus Pray to God if He is God Most JWS attack saying if Jesus is God why did He pray to Himself? They may ask, Why did Jesus pray to the Father? (John 17). They forget that there are three distinct separate individual persons in the Godhead and they do not necessarily have to be in the same place at the same time, The Father was in heaven and The Son was on the earth. They are not one person but two and Jesus was setting the example for us. As a man He needed to pray to the Father. Jesus was both God and man (Col. 2:9; John 8:58 with Ex. 3:14). There are the two natures to Christ's' incarnation and that is why scripture has tow types of wording concerning Jesus: His deity the divine-side, His Fathers side, and His human-side, His mothers side. JWs purposely ignore, overlook, change, and manipulate the scriptures that point to Christ's divinity and deity they concentrate on the scriptures that describe His human nature in a way that makes Him sound less than God instead of taking His human side or nature in accordance with the whole content, purpose and intent of scripture. Debating with a lack of knowledge and from a biased point of view JWs will also respond or to try to convince you of there belief by saying "Why did Jesus say the Father was greater than He (John 14:28)?" Simply Jesus choose to become a man He was still fully God but know he was fully man. Jesus said this because of His relationship in the Godhead to the father and His position on the earth as God in the flesh was limited and much lesser than God at that point. Jesus had momentarily step down to a position a little lower than the angels until Jesus fulfilled His mission on earth to return to His former position before He (Jesus) created the universe and the fullness there of, Heb 2:7; John 17:5. Jesus earthly and relational position in the Godhead is different than that of God, not His nature. Jesus is one essence with God but uniguely seperate and individual united in Godhead and purpose. It says in Heb. 2:9 that Jesus is made for a little while lower than the angels; that is, when He became a man. The Father sent the Son (1 John 4:10). This is were Jesus was begotten fulfilling the psalmist prophetic psalm (Psa 2:7) who under inspiration of the spirit of God said "Today I have begotten thee." At the point of King Davids writing Jesus had already created the universe with God so Jesus was not a created being when He was called the only begotten or one and only but rather He was the chosen one chosen to fulfill the task of the incarnation of a perfect holy God in the flesh of man fully tempted but fully victorious as the triumphant king who will soon return for His bride. Attacking the Deity and Divinity of Christ a common tool of cults and satan! JWs may also say 'Why did Jesus say, 'Why call me good, only God is good?'(Luke 18:19)?' Jesus was confirming His own deity because what He was doing was good. JWs may reply 'Why did Jesus say that He could only do those things that He saw the Father do? (John 5:19).' This verse proves the divinity of Christ, not that He wasn't God but that He is deity with the full power of God, the actual fullness of God, equal with God, co-eternal, co-equal, sharing the same essence with God, Phil 2:6-10. However He choose to give that up to be like you and me so He could redeem us and only perfection can save imperfection and only God is perfect. Who can do the same things God the Father can do? Can an angel? Or could a man? Neither. Angels and humans do not have the ability to create something new out of nothing. Jesus does however have that ability which no creation has the ability Jesus is the creator. Jesus, says He could do whatever He saw the Father do. "I tell you the truth, the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees his Father doing, because whatever the Father does the Son also does." John 14:6-9 says "If you have seen me you have seen my father." John 10:30-33 the Pharisees wanted to kill Jesus because He claimed to be God. Luke 18:19 helps us understand the unity in the Godhead the facts that The Father, Son, and Holy Ghost can not operate seperate of each other. In Jesus dual nature He was fully man as well as fully God and as a man He can not do anything without God and He will show His humanity. JWs mistranslation of John 1:1 JWs mistranslate John 1:1: "In the beginning was the word and the word was with God and the word was a god." IS Satan is a true god or a false god? A false god of course. Is Jesus is a true god or a false god? (Isa 9:6; 10:22; Jer 25:5-6; Zech 12:10; Matt 28:19; John 1:1,18; 8:58; 10:30-33,38; 14:6-9; 20:28; Rom 9:5; 1 Cor 12:4-6; 2 Cor 13:14; Eph 4:4-6; Tit 2:13; Heb 1:3,5,6,8,10). If Jesus is God then there is Only One True God with three separate persons of The One True God. If Jesus is a false God we are deceived and Jesus is a false messiah and we all are on are way to hell. JWs may even say there are two Gods saying, "Yes there are two Gods, but Jesus is not the Almighty God, He is only the mighty god. And besides, there are those in the Bible who are called gods but really aren't as satan is the god of this system of things." The problem with this is that the OT declares that every God besides Jehovah is a false God and that there is Only One True God. God says to have no other God before Him (Exodus 20:3) because they are not by nature gods (Gal 4:8). So did God lie when He inspired the bible saying Jesus was God or as Jehovahs Witnesses say 'a mighty god.' However the word of God says "THE MIGHTY GOD." (Isa 9:6). Let GOD be true and every man a liar. JWS mis-translation of Col 1:15 The JWS use Col 1:15: to say Jesus is the first created being. This verse talking about Jesus says, "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation." The J.W.'s maintain that "firstborn" means first created. This cannot be the case because... There is a Greek word for "first created" and it is not used here. "First born" is proto, "first," with tikto "to bring forth, bear, produce." There is no word used in the N.T. for "first created." However, if there were, the construction would be proto, "first," with ktizo "to create." And this is not the construction used in Col 1:15. Firstborn can certainly mean the first one born in a family. However, it can also mean preeminence. If you look at Jeremiah 31:9 you will see that the firstborn title is attributed to one of the tribes of Israel. "They will come with weeping; they will pray as I bring them back. I will lead them beside streams of water on a level path where they will not stumble, because I am Israel's father, and Ephraim is my firstborn son." Here we see God called Ephriam His first born but is he Gods first created or first born? NO, he is not, he is a prominent, chosen, selected person for a special task by God. We must understand biblical culture and historical context as essential to proper biblical interpretation. The text must be used hermanuetically in its context using proper exegesis to understand the bible as it was written then and how that applies today. Firstborn was a title, not only of the first born male, but also of preeminence which is precisely what is occurring when it is said that Jesus is the firstborn. Col. 1:15-17 The J.W. Bible adds a few words here that change the meaning. The NWT reads, "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All [other] things have been created through him and for him. Also, he is before all [other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to exist," (Their word "[other]" is in their Bible with the brackets. They maintain that they know it isn't in the original Greek Scriptures but the word is implied and should be there.) Instead of refuting the bad translation, simply ask them if this means that Jesus created everything. They will say yes. Review this and be very clear and get them to admit that it was Jesus who created everything. Then turn to... Isaiah 44:24 "This is what the LORD says -- your Redeemer, who formed you in the womb: I am the LORD, who has made all things, who alone stretched out the heavens, who spread out the earth by myself." If Jesus created everything, then why does it say that the Lord (Jehovah in the Hebrew) did it by Himself? The only answer is that Jehovah is not simply the name of the Father, but that it is the name of God the Trinity. Therefore, since Jesus is God in flesh, it could be said that Jesus created all things and that Jehovah did it alone. You can also ask them to try to read the section of verses and omit the word "other". You will find it to be an interesting experience. John 8:58 in the J.W. Bible says, "...Before Abraham came into existence, I have been." They have translated the present tense ego eimi, in the Greek, into the perfect tense, I have been. Though this can be done rarely in the N.T., it is not correct here because Jesus was quoting the O.T. verse of Exodus 3:14 where God was telling Moses who He was: "God said to Moses, ‘I AM WHO I AM. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: "I AM has sent me to you."'" Jesus was purposely using the divine title: I AM. The J.W. won't agree. So ask him if Jesus was saying that He "had been" before Abraham, then why does it say in the next verse that the Jews pick up stones to kill him? Additionally, about 250 years B.C. the Jews translated the Hebrew Scriptures into Greek. It is called the Septuagint, also known as LXX. In the Septuagint Exodus 3:14 is translated in the Greek in a present tense, i.e., I AM... The correct translation is, therefore, "Before Abraham was, I AM." If this verse should really be translated as "I have been" then why did the Jews want to kill Jesus? The answer is simple: They knew He was claiming to be God, see the next example. E. - John 10:30-34 is a section of verses where the Pharisees say that Jesus is making Himself out to be God (v. 33). "I and the Father are one." Again the Jews picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus said to them, "I have shown you many great miracles from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?" "We are not stoning you for any of these," replied the Jews, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God." You can say, "See, even the Jews knew He was claiming to be God. The J.W. (if he's quick enough) will say something like, "Jesus wasn't God, the Jew's only thought that Jesus was claiming to be God." Then you can say, "Oh, I see. Then let me get this right. You agree with the Pharisees, Jesus wasn't God? Is that correct? The J.W. will not like it that he agrees with a Pharisee. The following group of scriptures strongly suggests a plurality within the Godhead. These verses are translated correctly in the J.W. Bible so you can encourage them to use it. The NIV is not as literal in its translation in the Amos verses, so I recommend using either the King James or the New American Standard Bible when doing your own. Gen. 1:26, "Then God said, "Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness . . . " They will say that angels are the ones who helped God make man. However, there is no scriptural evidence for that. God is the only creator. You can also take him to Col. 1:15-17 where it says that Jesus is the creator of all things--including man. Gen. 19:24, "Then the LORD rained on Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the LORD out of heaven." Is this saying there are two Lords, two Jehovah's? Amos 4:10-11, "‘I sent a plague among you after the manner of Egypt; I slew your young men by the sword along with your captured horses, and I made the stench of your camp rise up in your nostrils; yet you have not returned to Me,' declares the LORD. ‘I overthrew you as God overthrew Sodom and Gomorrah . . . '" Jehovah is the one talking and He says, "I overthrew you as God overthrew Sodom and Gomorrah..." Very interesting. Isaiah 44:6, "Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: ‘I am the first and I am the last, and there is no God besides me . . . ‘" See also, Isaiah 48:16. If you are reading these verses to a J.W. he might say something like, "Are you trying to show the Trinity from these verses?" You can then say, "You got the Trinity out of these? That's very interesting." John 20:25 says, "The other disciples therefore were saying to him, ‘We have seen the Lord!' But he said to them, ‘Unless I shall see in His hands the imprint of the nails, and put my finger into the place of the nails, and put my hand into His side, I will not believe'" (NASB). The J.W.'s deny that Jesus was crucified on a cross. They say it happened on a torture stake where His wrists were put together over His head and a single nail was put through both. If that is true, then why does Thomas say "Unless I shall see in His hands the imprint of the nails..." In the Greek the word used here for "nails", helos, is in the plural. Therefore, there was more than one nail used in the hands of the crucifixion of Christ. How many firsts and lasts are there? In the Bible God is called the first and last and so is Jesus. Since God says there is no God apart from Him and Jesus and God are both addressed by the same title, then that poses a problem for the J.W. Isaiah 44:6, "This is what the LORD says -- Israel's King and Redeemer, the LORD Almighty: I am the first and I am the last; apart from me there is no God. Revelation 1:7,8, "And they will look upon Him the one they have pierced... I am the Alpha and the Omega," says the Lord God, "who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty." Revelation 1:17-18, "When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: "Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last. I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades." Obviously, Rev. 1:17-18 can only refer to Jesus. Revelation 22:12-13, "Behold, I am coming soon! My reward is with me, and I will give to everyone according to what he has done. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End." Here, both the "Alpha and the Omega" and the "First and the Last" are said to be one and the same. Also, at this point go to Titus 2:13 where it says that Jesus is the one who is coming soon, therefore, Jesus and Jehovah are the same. Col. 1:15-17 - The word "other" is inserted 4 times. It is not in the original Greek, nor is it implied. This is a section where Jesus is described as being the creator of all things. Since the J.W. organization believes that Jesus is created, they have inserted the word "other" to show that Jesus was before all "other" things, implying that He is created. There are two Greek words for "other": heteros, and allos. The first means another of a different kind, and the second means another of the same kind. Neither is used at all in this section of scripture. The J.W.'s have changed the Bible to make it fit their aberrant theology. Zech. 12:10 - In this verse God is speaking and says "And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and supplication. They will look on me, the one they have pierced, and they will mourn for him as one mourns for an only child, and grieve bitterly for him as one grieves for a firstborn son" (Zech. 12:10). The J.W.'s change the word "me" to "the one" so that it says in their Bible, "...they will look upon the one whom they have pierced..." Since the J.W.'s deny that Jesus is God in flesh, then Zech. 12:10 would present obvious problems--so they changed it. John 1:1 - They mistranslate the verse as "a god." Again it is because they deny who Jesus is and must change the Bible to make it agree with their theology. The J.W. version is this: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god." Heb. 1:6 - In this verse they translate the Greek word for worship , proskuneo, as "obeisance." Obeisance is a word that means to honor, show respect, even bow down before someone. Since Jesus, to them, is created, then he cannot be worshiped. They have also done this in other verses concerning Jesus, i.e., Matt. 2:2,11; 14:33; 28:9. Heb. 1:8 - This is a verse where God the Father is calling Jesus God: "But about the Son he says, ‘Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever, and righteousness will be the scepter of your kingdom.'" Since the J.W.'s don't agree with that they have changed the Bible, yet again, to agree with their theology. They have translated the verse as "...God is your throne..." The problem with the J.W. translation is that this verse is a quote from Psalm 45:6 which, from the Hebrew, can only be translated as "...Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever; a scepter of justice will be the scepter of your kingdom." To justify their N.T. translation they actually changed the O.T. verse to agree with their theology, too! The NWT translation is horrible. It has changed the text to suit its own theological bias in many places. The NWT is corrupted by the Watchtower's unbiblical, unchristian bias. There is no historian that will deny the bible, or that Jesus walked the earth. There are records from Rome that acknowledge Jesus, to have lived, died, rose, and proclaimed himself to be the Messiah, and that Christianity grew out of this movement. That Christian touched all of Roman and foreign life. If the fact is that Jesus is real and that he had an impact on the world other than just with His word's alone. He is who He claimed to be, The Messiah. What he taught is truth. Jesus is "The Way, The Truth, and The Life. no one can come to The Father except threw" Him John 14:6. You must understand that Jesus is GOD manifest in the flesh Gen 1:1-3,26; 3:27; 11:6-8; 18:1-3; Ex 3:1-16; Duet 6:4; 2 Chron 15:3; Is 6:1,3,8-9; 7:14; 9:6; 10:21; 12:2; 40:3, 10-26; 41:10; 43:10-11; 44:6. 24; 45:12,23,24; 46:8-11; 48:12,16; 54:5; 55:6-7; 57:15; Psa 23:1; 24:8; 27:1; 110:1; 112:1; 139:1-6; Zech 12:10; 13:6; 14:4-5,9; Micah 5:2; Jer 10:10; 12:13; 23:6; Matt 1:21,23; 3:3,16-17;6:9; 7:11; 13:49-42; 22:13; 28:18-20; Mark 1:3,14-15; 2:7; 9:43-48; 12:29,32; Luke 1:18-20; 47,76; 3:4,22; 8:39; 16:22-31;John 1:1-4,12,14,18,20,23,28,29,49; 2;19-23; 4:1-5,14; 5:17-32; 6:35,41,48,51; 8:12,17-18,24,28,58; 10:7,11,30-33,38; 12:41; 13:19; 14: 6-14,16,17; 15;26; 16:7-11; 17:1-5,11,15,21; 18:4-6;19:37; 20:25,28-31; Acts 1:8; 4:12; 5:3-4; 7:59; 13:2; 20;28; Rom 5:8;9:5; 10:9-14; 11:33-39;14:11; 1 Cor 2:8; 8:6; 12:4-6; 15:1-8;2 Cor 3:17,18; 13:14; Eph 1:20; 2:18; 3:8; 4:4-6; Phil 2:6-11; Col 1:15-19; 2:2-9;1 Thess 4:16; 1 Tim 1:1; 3:16; 6:15; Titus 1:3; 2:13; 3:6; Heb 1:3,6,8,10,12;4:15; 5:6; 12:2,8; 13:3,8; 1 Peter 1:8; 2 Pet 1:1; 1 John 1:23; 2:11, 22-27; 4:15; 5:1,7-8,20-21; 2 John 9; Jude 4; Rev 1:7-8,11,17; 3:14; 4:8-11;5:6-14; 7:9; 17:14; 19:1. He Claimed to be God in John 10:30-33,38. When He said "Before Abraham was I Am" John 8:58; Ex 3:14. The words Here was Ego Eimi in Greek that means I AM, I EXIST. The same Ego Eimi used in Exodus 3:2,6,14 to describe the name Yahweh (yah[ct] weh which mean I AM THAT I AM). The Greek Septuagint (LXX) of the Old Testament translated by 70-72 Jews, 200 B.C. There is Only One true God Jer 10:10; 1 John 5:20; John 1:1-3; 10:30-38; 14:6-9; 17:3. If scripture Calls Jesus God He is God or you call GOD a liar! Let God be true and every man a liar Rom 3:4. God is the only real thing, we are here today gone tomorrow James 4:14. "Heaven and earth may pass away but (Jesus) word abideth forever" Mark 13:31. That means that if you do not obey His words you will hear them echoing for all eternity. Life is like a Chess game now YOU HAVE A CHOICE!!! Hi here is more info. It does address his questions if you have time to read. John 1:1 This is one of the most famous verses to debate among the Jehovah's Witnesses. Their contention is that Jesus is not God in flesh, but Michael the archangel who became a man. Since Jesus, to them, is not divine, then John 1:1 cannot say that Jesus is God; hence, they have added the word "a" to the verse. The correct translation for this verse is "In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God." Note that there is no "a" before the final word "God." The Jehovah's Witnesses are incorrect in their translation of this verse for several reasons: Christianity teaches monotheism: the belief that there is only one God. If Jesus is a god, then their translation would mean there are two gods? They often respond, "Yes. But they add that Jesus is not the Almighty God. He is only the mighty god. And besides, there are those in the Bible who are called gods but really aren't." To this I tell them, "Yes, there are those that are called gods in scripture (Psalm 82:6), but the Bible is quite clear that there is only one God (Isaiah 43:10; 44:6,8; 45:5, etc.). Since we know that there is only one true God, then every God besides the true God, Jehovah, is a false god. If Jesus is "a god" is he a true god or a false god? God says to have no other God before Him (Exodus 20:3) because they are not by nature gods (Gal. 4:8). Is Jesus a god or not? John was a strict Jew, a monotheist. Do you really think that John would be saying that there was another God besides Jehovah, even if it were Jesus? Being raised a good Jew, John would never believe that there was more than one God. He knew there was only one God. Also, as a good Old Testament believer, there is no way he would say that Jesus was a false god. 3.Sometimes a J.W. will say that in the Greek, John 1:1 can have the word "a" in front of it. I ask them, "Have you studied Greek?" They say, "The Watchtower has scholars who know the Greek and I believe them. They say it can be translated this way." I say, "Then because the Greek does not have the word "a" in its vocabulary, then the "a" must be implied when tranlsating, right?" They usually say, "Yes, that is right." "Well then, in John 1:6 it says the same thing in the Greek but you don't translate it according to what you believe. It says in John 1:6, "There arose a man that was sent forth as a representative of God" (NWT). Why isn't it translated "a god" since the construction is the same as in John 1:1?" 4.Did you know that in the Greek in John 20:28 it literally says, "The lord of me, and the god of me." There, Thomas was addressing Jesus? Now, tell me. If Jesus was not God, but "a" god, then shouldn't he have corrected Thomas? But He did not. Why not? Usually, the J.W. will say it is because Thomas was so stunned by Jesus' appearance, that he swore. I tell them, "Then Thomas, a devout man of God, swore in front of Jesus and used the Lord's name in vain?" You mean he sinned right in front of Jesus and Jesus didn't correct him? John 8:58 "Jesus said to them: "Most truly I say to you, Before Abraham came into existence, I have been" (New World Translation). Since to a Jehovah's Witness Jesus is not God, then there cannot be any verses in the Bible that would remotely hint at Jesus being divine. John 8:58 is a verse that they had to change in order to justify their doctrinal position. The correct translation of John 8:58 is, "Before Abraham was, I am." The Jehovah's Witnesses have changed the words of Jesus in this verse to say what it does not say. "I have been," grammatically, is the 'perfect tense.' By contrast, past tense would be "I was." Future tense would be "I will be." Present tense would be, "I am." In this verse, in the Greek, the original tense is in the present. The Greek words are "ego eimi." Literally, this is "I am." This is the present active indicative first person singular, not the perfect active indicative first person singular. The natural and correct translation is "I am.' Additionally, you can say to the J.W.: If Jesus were really saying, "I have been," then why would the Pharisees want to kill him (v. 59)? Since blasphemy, or calling yourself God, was punishable by death, isn't this a confirmation that Jesus was saying "I am" and that the Jew's understood what he was saying? Around 250 B.C., the Hebrew Old Testament was translated into the Greek. This translation is called the Septuagint which is also known as the LXX. In John 8:58, Jesus was quoting the Septuagint in Exodus 3:14 where Moses was at the burning bush and asked God what His name was. God answered and said, "Ego eimi, ho on." Translated this is, "I am the Being One. Jesus said, "Before Abraham was..." Before Abraham, was Moses. God said, "I AM..." The Jews knew that when Jesus said, "I AM," particularly in the context of saying "Before Abraham...", that Jesus was identifying Himself as the One at the burning bush. That is why they wanted to kill Him, because He was identifying Himself as the divine "I AM." Jesus did not switch tenses in the middle of his sentence for no reason. The word "was" in this verse is in the aorist tense (past tense). "I am" is in the present tense. If Jesus wanted to be consistent why didn't he use past tenses? The aorist (I was), the perfect (I have been), and the pluperfect (I had been) all deal with the past, yet Jesus chose to deliberately change the tense and use the present. He used a past tense verb when describing Abraham, but a present tense verb when describing Himself. He deliberately brought attention to the words, "I AM." The Pharisees understood this and tried to kill Him for saying He was God. The J.W. will deny that Jesus claimed to be God so I take him to John 10:30-33 and read to them out of their own Bible: "I and the Father are one." Once more the Jews lifted up stones to stone him. Jesus replied to them: "I displayed to you many fine works from the Father. For which of those works are you stoning me?" The Jews answered him: "We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy, even because you, although being a man, make yourself a god." (Funny, they agree with John in verse 1:1 where Jesus was "a god.") I tell them, "See even here the Pharisees understood that Jesus was claiming to be God." They usually reply, "No. They misunderstood Jesus. They only thought that he was claiming to be God." I say, "So the Pharisees misunderstood him and they were saying that Jesus was not God or a god, right?" "Right," replies the J.W. "I get it now," I say, "You agree with the Pharisees. Jesus is not God. Interesting." "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All [other] things have been created through him and for him. Also, he is before all [other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to exists." The New World Translation The New World Translation not only miss interprets various scriptures, it also adds words to verses to make them agree with their theology. Col. 1:15-17 fits both categories. First of all the J.W.'s interpret the word "firstborn" to mean "first created." This is not correct because there is a Greek word of "first created" and it is not used. The Greek for firstborn is proto with tikto: firstborn. The Greek for firstcreated would be proto with ktizo: first created. Paul did not use the second but the first. Second, the biblical use of the word "firstborn" is most interesting. It can mean the first born child in a family (Luke 2:7), but it can also mean "pre-eminence." In Psalm 89:20, 27 it says, "I have found David My servant; with My holy oil I have anointed him...I also shall make him My first-born" (NASB). As you can see, David, who was the last one born in his family was called the firstborn by God. This is a title of preeminence here. Third, firstborn is a title that is transferable: Gen. 41:51-52, "And Joseph called the name of the first-born Manasseh: For, said he, God hath made me forget all my toil, and all my father’s house. And the name of the second called he Ephraim: For God hath made me fruitful in the land of my affliction" (NASB) Jer. 31:9, "...for I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is My firstborn (NASB)." Scripture best interprets scripture. Firstborn does not mean first created, it is a title of preeminence, and it is transferable. The Jehovah's Witnesses should consider this when they examine Col. 1:15. Col. 1:16-17 In the NWT, the word "other" is added four times. This is done because in J.W. theology, Jesus is the first-created thing among God's creation. Although "other" is added in brackets, which means that the NWT acknowledges that it is not in the Greek, it is, nevertheless, added. This shows the J.W. bias dominating the biblical text. There exists two Greek words for "other": allos which means another of the same kind; and heteros which means another of a different kind. Paul could have used either here if he want to show that Jesus was "another" created thing. But he did not. Ask a J.W. to read the text without saying the word "other." He will have difficulty. After he has done so, ask him what he thinks the text is saying without the word "other" added in. It will be an interesting discussion. The Jehovah's Witnesses believe that Jesus is the first created being. They teach that through Jesus, all other things were created. Basically, they maintain that God created Jesus and then Jesus created all other things. Afterall, according to their theology and their Bible, since Jesus is not God, that is a logical conclusion. However, that position based on Col. 1:16-17 presents a theological problem for the Jehovah's Witness. In Isaiah 44:24 God says, "Thus says the LORD, your Redeemer, and the one who formed you from the womb, 'I, the LORD, am the maker of all things, stretching out the heavens by Myself, and spreading out the earth all alone'" (NASB). If the Jehovah's Witness is correct, then how is it possible for the LORD (YHWH, or Jehovah) to stretch out the heavens alone and yet Jesus, "the first created thing," be the one who did it? They can't both be true. In actuality, Jehovah is the name of God. God is a trinity, and therefore Jesus can be the creator of all things and YHWH can do it by himself. Hebrews 1:6 "But when he again brings his Firstborn into the inhabited earth, he says: 'And let all God's angels do obeisance to him" The New World Translation. The problem with this verse in the J.W. Bible is with the word "obeisance." In the Greek, the word is "proskuneo." It means, worship; fall down and worship, kneel, bow low, obeisance. Obeisance means, "bending the head or body or knee as a sign of reverence or submission or shame." Where this is certainly applicable to Jesus, "obeisance" does not carry sufficiently the act of worship. Jesus said in Matthew 4:10 that you should worship (proskuneo) God only. The J.W.'s, assuming that Jesus is not God, have translated the Greek word "proskuneo" as obeisance where ever it refers to Jesus. For proof, consider Matt. 2:2; 2:11; 14:33; 28:9; and John 9:35-38 in the NWT. Since the J.W.'s believe that Jesus is an angel, he cannot be worhsipped. But consider this: In Acts 10:25-26 it says, "And when it came about that Peter entered, Cornelius met him, and fell at his feet and worshiped him. But Peter raised him up, saying, 'Stand up; I too am just a man'" (NASB). Here, Cornelius bows down before Peter. The Greek word there is "proskuneo." Peter knew that this homage is to be given to God alone. Jesus, undoubtedly, knew the same thing. Yet, when they bow down before Jesus, He does not rebuke them. Why? Because Jesus is worthy of worship. He is God in flesh. The Watchtower taught that Jesus was to be worshipped. Oddly enough, denying worship of Jesus is not what the Watchtower Organization has always taught. On page 216 of the July 15, 1898 edition of the Watchtower magazine it says: "Question: The fact that our Lord received worship is claimed by some to be an evidence that while on earth he was God the Father disguised in a body of flesh and not really a man. Was he really worshiped, or is the translation faulty? Answer: Yes, we believe our Lord Jesus while on earth was really worshiped, and properly so...It was proper for our Lord to receive worship in view of his having been the only begotten of the Father, and his agent in the creation of all things, including man." The J.W. will probably answer this the same way he would with the false prophecies made by the Watchtower Magazine. He would say that "the light is getting brighter." This means that the early Watchtowers did not have the same information and light that the present Watchtower writers do. They made errors in the past, but no more." Well true Christianity is the light and it is founded on the rock and we are staying the same rooted in Gods word. Gods word is unchanging. But if this were so, then how can the J.W. trust what is being said now? If the doctrines have changed before, what's to prevent them from changing again? How can a J.W. be sure that what he is believing now won't be changed later? Hebrews 1:8 and Psalm 45:6 "But with reference to the Son: 'God is your throne forever and ever, and [the] scepter of your kingdom is the scepter of uprightness'" The New World Translation. In this particularly interesting verse, God is addressing the Son. The Greek construction of Hebrews 1:8 allows the text to be translated in two legitimate ways: "God is your throne forever and ever...." and" Thy Throne O God, is forever and ever..." But because of the Watchtower presupposition that Jesus is not God, the translation must be the first one. Yet, all other Bibles do not translate it the way the NWT does. All other Bibles translate it the second way. Why? Because in actuality, though either translation is entirely legitimate, only one is possible. This is because Heb. 1:8 is a quote from Psalm 45:6 which says: "Thy Throne, O God, is forever and ever; a scepter of uprightness is the scepter of Thy kingdom" (NASB). Psalm 45:6 was written in Hebrew. The Hebrew does not have the same linguistic issues as the Greek. Psalm 45:6 can only be translated one way: Thy Throne, O God, is forever and ever..." Therefore, since Hebrews 1:8 is a quote from Psalm 45:6, it must be translated in accordance with the O.T. quote. But, the NWT does not do that. To support their errant extra-biblical false prophetic doctrine, the Watchtower organization has even changed the Hebrew translation to make it agree with their theology. There is absolutely no way this can be justified other than to say that the Watchtower organization is scholastically dishonest or forthright. They fall in-line with the many other false christ's of our time. What does this all mean to me and how does it apply to me? The Only way to be cleansed from your sin is through repentance and faith in the precious blood of Christ, in His life, death and resurrection. While we were yet sinners Christ died for us, signing the pardon of all who believe on His name (John 3:16; Rom 5:8). We have no righteousness and must come to God pleading the righteousness of Christ (Eph 2:8), Upon sincere repentance, and a whole-hearted acceptance of Christ, we are justified before God (I John 1:9), The change which takes place in the heart and life at conversion is a very real one. (2 Cor 5:17; Gal 2:20;1 Peter 1:18,19) Salvation is received through repentance toward God and personal growing faith in the Lord Jesus Christ. By the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Ghost, being justified by grace through faith, man becomes an heir of God, according to the hope of eternal life. (Luke 24:47; John 3:3; Rom 10:13-15; Eph 2:8; Titus 2:11; 3:5-7) The inward evidence of salvation is the direct witness of the Spirit. (Rom 8:16) The outward evidence to all men is a life of righteousness and true holiness. (Eph 4:24; Titus 2:12)Sanctification is once and for all at the new birth, instantaneous as well as progressive in nature. At the time of conversion, God Himself spiritually sets the believer apart according to His word completely breaking all chains of sin and restoring Gods kingdom dominion to whom ever will call upon His name. Then the believer is also commanded to separate himself from the world unto a holy God by by choice through the washing himself daily with the Word and in prayer, perfecting a life of personal holiness in relationship with Jesus. It is the will of God that we walk in the Spirit daily. We should show spiritual fruit as evidence of a Spirit-filled life. The fruit of the Spirit is the divine nature and character of the Lord Jesus Christ, who is the Pattern Son for every believer. (Rom. 8:28-29; 2 Cor. 3:18; Gal. 5:22-23; 2 Pet. 1:3-4; 1 John 3:1-3; Matt 5:48; 1 Cor 1:30; 2 Cor 6:11-7:1; Gal 5:16; Eph 5:25-27; Col 3:8-13; 1 Thes 5:23; Heb 9:12; 12:14; Jas 1:27; 1 Pet 1:15, 16; 1 John 2:15-17; Heb 6:1; Eph 4:30-32; I Cor 12:1-11; 13; Gal 5:22). What promise do I have to overcome all this and live in the blessings of God? The Holy Spirit indwells every believer in Jesus Christ and that He is our abiding Helper, Teacher, and Guide. The filling or empowering of the Holy Spirit, often a conscious experience, for ministry today. The Holy spirit is present ministry in modern times and in the full expression and exercise of all the biblical gifts of the Spirit along with laying on of hands for healing, recognition, revelation, activation, and empowering of those whom God has ordained to lead and serve in the Church. The gifts of the Holy Spirit are given to every believer and need to be discovered, activated and exercised to fulfill their divine purpose of blessing the body of Christ. The experience of the Holy Spirit Baptism being separate from and subsequent to conversion, the Johanine Pentecost. The primary and most significant initial physical evidences of the Baptism in The Holy Spirit to other believers is speaking with other tongues as the Spirit gives utterance. The fruit of a genuine Pentecost is the writing of the law of God upon one's heart. There is one new birth or Johanine pentecost, one Baptism in The Holy Ghost and many subsequent re-fillings, or re-immersions. (Mark 16:16-20; Luke 4:40; 10:34; 13:13; 2 Tim 1:6; Acts 1:4-8; 2:1-4,39; 10:44-46; 19:6; 28:8; Gal 3:14-15; 4:6; 5:16,22; Eph 5:17-18; Col 1:27; Ex 19:1; Lev 23:15-22; Rom 8:9-10; 28-29; 1 Cor 12:3-13,29; 14:1,39; 2 Cor 3:18; 2 Pet 1:3-4; 1 John 3:1-3; John 16:7; 14:26; 20:21-27) |
|
|
